I was thinking, after reading it this morning, that 2 Peter 1:1 - in the interlinear - is highly Christian Universalist.
Otherwise, it reads (NKJ for example):
- "Simon Peter, a bondservant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have obtained like precious faith with us by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ.."
In the interlinear, it reads:
- "Simon Peter a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ to those who equally precious with ours having obtained a faith through [the] righteousness of the God of us and Savior Jesus Christ" - http://biblehub.com/interlinear/2_peter/1-1.htm
The words, "[the] righteousness" is from #G1343 - "dikaiosuné: righteousness, justice" and "(usually if not always in a Jewish atmosphere), justice, justness, righteousness, righteousness of which God is the source or author, but practically: a divine righteousness."
and "having obtained" is #G2975 - "lagchanó: to obtain by lot" (by a heavenly shake of the dice!)
- "Simon Peter, a bondservant and apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have obtained like precious faith with us by the righteousness/justice of our God and Savior Jesus Christ.."
Now if "ones salvation is/was obtained by lot", and all others perish horribly forever and ever (as the mistranslation goes) how is that reflecting the justice and (utter) right-ness of God our heavenly Father?